Dart Firing Stun Gun Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Conventional stun guns use which type of batteries?
• When a dart-firing stun gun fires, the probes discharge into the subject. The officer then applies a drive stun away from the probes to achieve what?
• What distinguishes cartridge-based stun devices from direct-contact devices?
• What should be done if a drive stun is used with close range to ensure incapacitation is achieved?
• What is the minimum annual training requirement in hours for the use of a dart-firing stun gun?
• Which of the following describes an 'Alternative target' site?
• Which items are included in comprehensive training for Dart Firing Stun Gun use?
• Probes removed from the skin should be treated as _______.
• The electrical charge from a stun gun is typically unable to damage the body unless applied for what duration?
• Subjects expecting enforcement encounters may conceal which items under clothing to reduce the device's effectiveness?
• What best distinguishes a non-lethal stun device from a firearm in terms of intent and lethality?
• The circuitry includes transformers that ______ the voltage and reduce amperage; the boosted voltage typically ranges from ______ volts.
• The electrodes are fitted with small _____ so that they will grab onto a subject's clothing.
• Which document outlines the rules and standards for use of a stun gun in many jurisdictions?
• The DFSG design enables greater standoff distance; which two user groups are specified for the longer distances?
• If only one probe strikes, which function can act as a second probe by completing the circuit?
• Who will take physical control of the subject?
• Which statement correctly describes the roles during DFSG deployment?
• Why is verbal de-escalation before deploying a stun device important?
• What legal considerations govern possession of a stun gun by civilians?
• How should the 5-second cycles be applied?
• Which statement best describes the legal status of stun guns in Florida?
• Which of the following describes the typical immediate state of the subject during stun exposure?
• The portion of a subject's body that should be targeted for back shots and lower center mass is known as what?
• The stun gun is used to control a person during an arrest or custody when resistance escalates from which to which?
• Which acronym stands for 'Dart Firing Stun Gun'?
• Electricity will not pass to others in contact with the subject unless contact is made directly between or on the probes.
• Why is it important to know the device's effective range and limitations?
• Which factor is NOT a consideration when deciding to deploy a stun device?
• How should you manage equipment after training exercises to avoid contamination or misuse?
• What is the ethical obligation of officers or security personnel when using a stun device?
• What is the recommended response when a subject refuses commands and appears intoxicated or impaired?
• Who will operate the DFSG?
• Which statement best reflects responsible use of a stun device?
• What is the recommended approach regarding de-escalation when using a stun device?
• Which acronym corresponds to 'Electronic Control Device'?
• What is the typical time window after custody for unexplained in-custody deaths to occur?
• What feature do the electrodes have to help them grab clothing?
• What is released after firing the stun gun that helps investigators identify which gun was fired and at what location?
• Name two risk factors that increase the likelihood of injury when a stun device is used.
• Which statement best describes the deployment roles?
• The ideal area of the body for drive stun is what?
• What is the primary purpose of documenting faults and maintenance actions for a stun device?
• The TASER device propels two small darts using what mechanism?
• How should you assess a subject's physiological state after deployment?
• The charge can pass through what barrier?
• Which statement best describes PPE usage during deployment?
• The ______ of a subject's body should be below the neck area for back shots and the lower center mass for the front or large muscle groups such as the back
• What information do identification tags convey?
• Which of the following is NOT typically required for certification to carry or deploy a Dart Firing Stun Gun?
• What is the role of training in the safe use of a Dart Firing Stun Gun?
• Why is it important to avoid aiming at the head or neck region when possible?
• How should you handle cartridges when transporting or storing?
• Which statement best describes the factors to consider before deploying a stun device?
• Which statute states that it is not a violation to carry, for purposes of lawful self-defense in a concealed manner, a dart-firing stun gun?
• If the dart firing stun gun gets wet, what should you do?
• The decision to use a DFSG requires what kind of reporting?
• In as safe and practical a manner as possible, an officer should attempt to discern if a subject is ______.
• What voltage range is typically produced by the boosted circuitry in stun devices?
• The use of a dart-firing stun gun is not a substitute for the use of a _______
• Electricity can arc through clothing and which type of materials?
• The reporting adjectives describing the DFSG use should be which pair?
• Which environmental factors should be considered before deploying a stun device to reduce slip hazards and ensure stability?
• What is the primary purpose of restraint devices in correctional settings?
• During engagement, what should be done to maintain electrical contact as the subject moves?
• Drive stun is intended to produce which effect on the subject when used appropriately?
• What is the usual discharge duration for a stun device when activated?
• What is the importance of continuous training and re-certification?
• What are the two small darts connected by wire to the TASER commonly called?
• Which device is about the size of a flashlight, runs on nine-volt batteries, and boosts voltage to 20,000-150,000 volts while reducing amperage?
• What should be checked during a pre-use inspection of a Dart Firing Stun Gun?
• Which officer takes physical control after compliance is achieved?
• What environmental or structural hazards could impede safe use of a stun device?
• Which of the following is a best practice for post-incident reporting after using a stun device?
• Which medical conditions may require additional caution before using a stun gun? (Variant of safety considerations)
• The reporting must include which element regarding the use of the DFSG?
• What is the recommended practice for re-holstering after an encounter?
• Which acronym stands for a device that immobilizes via electric energy?
• The basic idea of a stun gun is to disrupt the body's communication system by generating a ___________,___________ electrical charge.
• Who invented the stun gun?
• The device generally used as a crowd control device for public riots and in correctional settings is the
• What is gained when pain or involuntary neuromuscular contractions occur, enabling the officer to restrain the subject?
• What is the purpose of a device's safety features in everyday carry?
• What does NMI stand for?
• The TASER device uses what to propel two small darts connected by wire to the device?
• According to Florida Statutes, you are allowed to decide to use a dart-firing stun gun only when a subject is actively physically resisting; you would not use it for verbal defiance, belligerence, punishment, or horse play.
• For a stun gun to operate, electricity must flow between the
• Which statement is true regarding injury risk with stun devices?
• What wattage range is described as a pain compliance tool that does not interfere with the nervous system?
• Which statement about device safety and readiness is true?
• What does ECD stand for?
• What condition could cause ignition when a dart-firing stun gun is deployed on a subject?
• The DFSG uses the same mechanism as which common device?
• What does SDS stand for?
• Which term describes the broad classification for unexplained in-custody deaths?
• Which statement best describes the role of de-escalation in deciding to deploy a stun device?
• What type of information should be documented after an incident involving a stun device?
• In the context of equipment security, what is a primary reason to store stun devices away from unauthorized access?
• Dart firing stun guns are a subtype of which broad category of devices?
• Which factors influence the decision to deploy a stun device versus retreating?
• Which term describes a state of heightened agitation and delirium often seen with stimulant use?
• What is the best approach for handling subjects suffering from psychosis to protect them and others from potential injury?
• The TASER device is commonly shaped like a what?
• Which action is NOT a component of post-incident reporting?
• The dart firing stun gun is used to control a person during an arrest or custody when his or her resistance escalates from ______ physical resistance to ______ physical resistance
• Which officer is designated to operate the DFSG during an encounter?
• If a subject is near water at the time of a DFSG deployment, what is a possible risk?
• What is the importance of maintaining a safe stance and control when securing a subject after deployment?
• Electronic control devices are all generally built using the same principle, which is delivering relatively _______ (amperage and wattage) coupled with ______ to a subject
• What does EID stand for?
• The ______ are used to control and restrain, mostly in correctional settings.
• The court has established law on the use of a TASER in the case of _______
• Why is it important to maintain a log of all uses of a stun device?
• Which groups are noted to have the greater standoff distance in DFSG design?
• What personal protective equipment (PPE) considerations may be relevant during deployment?
• If a subject continues to not comply, and when appropriate, warn of the device's ______.
• The subject may not show physical effects from contact but may sustain injuries from _____ caused by the weapon’s effects on the body.
• Which term describes a device that propels electrified darts, probes, or barbs?
• In the event of a deeply embedded probe, which personnel should perform the removal?
• _______ is the measure of electrical current or power.
• Under Florida Statutes, how is a dart firing stun gun categorized?
• What is the minimum backup presence during DFSG deployment?
• The use of a DFSG in a punitive manner without lawful authority may be violating a citizen's _______
• _______ sites might be the back near the shoulders or the back of the legs where, if clothed, the clothing fits tighter and the probes will conduct electricity to the subject more effectively
• Which statement best describes safety considerations regarding the line of fire?
• Before deploying a stun device, what environmental factors should be assessed to minimize risk to bystanders?
• How are the TASER discharge electrodes configured relative to the housing?
• _______ should remove all deeply embedded probes or probes that penetrate sensitive tissue areas (i.e., neck, face, groin, female breast, etc.).
• What does CED stand for?
• Drive stun occurs when the front of the dart-firing stun gun is directly touched to the body. What term describes this action?
• Which of the following indicates how the two darts are delivered from the main unit?
• What is the overall goal of the stun gun with respect to the body's communication system?
• The subject's torso and limbs will contract or extend depending on what?
• Which component of a stun gun delivers the electrical pulse to the target?
• Which statement best describes readiness for use of a stun device?
• Which of the following best describes the lawful limit on the number of 5-second cycles?
• Which action is required for the charge to pass into the subject's body?
• The TASER device is shaped like a handgun and uses what to propel its two darts?
• Which of the following is NOT listed among the mental states associated with bizarre behavior in tased individuals?
• What agencies or bodies may certify stun device training?
• Which principle applies to the use-of-force continuum relevant to stun devices?
• The number of five-second cycles should be limited to which actions?
• When applying force, which approach aligns with the use-of-force continuum?
• The device affects which body system?
• Which document best reflects the regulatory basis for stun device use across jurisdictions?
• Which combination describes the electrical charge delivered by the stun gun?
• Which acronym corresponds to 'Conducted Energy Device'?
• Which term describes the energy that is used in these devices to produce the electric shock?
• How does a stun device differ from pepper spray or baton in deployment considerations?
• If all efforts to verbally de-escalate the situation are exhausted or are not feasible, the use of a dart-firing stun gun may be ______.
• Before deploying a DFSG, what should the officer warn the subject about?
• Is it appropriate to use a stun device on a moving vehicle occupant?
• What is the recommended approach to monitoring a subject after deployment for potential complications?
• If an officer decides to use a dart firing stun gun, he or she will be expected to articulate that, based on ______, _____, and _____
• Which action is NOT recommended when a subject may be under the influence affecting coordination?
• Low voltage can injure if the ______ is high enough.
• In the described context, resistance escalates to active when the person has the apparent ability to threaten the officer or escape. Which scenario best describes this context?
• Claims that officers used excessive force in the course of an arrest, investigatory stop, or other seizure are analyzed under the ______ objective reasonableness standard.
• An officer should first attempt to gain control of a situation by using ________
• Which combination best describes the energy delivered by electronic control devices?
• What does CEW stand for?
• What training is typically required to be certified to carry or deploy a Dart Firing Stun Gun?
• What is the consequence of failing to report a stun device incident?
• The stun gun was invented in the ______
• Electricity tends to flow along which path?
• The most prudent approach may be for the officer to do what?
• If the subject begins to roll after deployment, which action should the officer take to maintain electrical contact?
• Which condition increases the risk of injury when using a stun device?
• In TASER-style devices, which description matches the discharge electrodes?
• The brand name TASER is associated with what kind of device?
• The dart-firing stun gun is not to be used to ______ a subject to give statements or perform an illegal act.
• What is the primary function of the probes when the stun gun is fired?
• What process helps prevent many physical encounters?
• Why is it important to avoid dry-firing or discharging without a proper target?
• The subject has a hard time telling his or her muscles to move and may become _______, ______, and _______.
• Dart-firing stun weapons can propel darts up to how many feet?
• If a subject is suspected to be under illicit substances affecting coordination, which steps should you take?
• What is the role of medical staff in the aftermath of a stun device deployment?
• Exposing a subject who is standing in water to a dart-firing stun gun does not cause electrocution or increase the power applied to the subject.
• A stun device's current frequency is designed to do what relative to the body's signals?
• Avoid ______ a subject's head, throat, face, breast, chest, or area of the heart, groin, genitals
• What should you do if the device experiences a misfire or partial discharge?
• The quickest and safest way to handle a non-compliant subject exhibiting excited delirium is to _____ and _____, if necessary.
• Which acronym stands for 'Conducted Energy Weapon'?
• This new weapon was called a TASER©, an acronym for _________
• Which Florida statute was a response to inconsistent stun gun use statewide?
• What is the recommended approach when dealing with individuals with mental health conditions?
• Excessive force claims are analyzed under which constitutional amendment?
• Which case is commonly cited as establishing TASER use law?
• Removed probes should be treated as ______.
• What is the primary purpose of a Dart Firing Stun Gun in law enforcement or security contexts?
• The path of least resistance on a dart-firing stun gun is
• Which factor most directly determines whether a stun device injures a subject?
• Which statement best describes the proper re-holstering procedure after an encounter?
• Drive stun is described as what type of tool?
• What medical conditions may require additional caution before using a stun gun?
• Which statement is NOT accurate regarding civilian possession of a stun gun?
• The wider the probes spread on the target, the greater the effectiveness of the weapon.
• If the probe spread is very minimal due to a close shot or a drive stun with a live cartridge, what action away from the probes will increase the spread and cause incapacitation?
• What is a recommended practice to maintain safe distance when deploying a stun device?
• When a stun gun is pressed against a subject and the trigger is held, the charge passes into the subject's body.
• In this mode, the dart-firing stun gun works as a conventional stun gun and is a pain-compliance tool only.
• The reporting must include an explanation of what?
• TASER's name references an early 1900s children's novel by ______
• Stun guns and dart-firing stun guns are available for purchase and legal use by which group in Florida?
• What are the marks left on a subject's body after a drive stun application called?
• What should be done if a bystander is accidentally struck by a dart?
• How long is a cycle?
• Use of force incidents are judged on whether a reasonable person would believe the officers' actions were justifiable based on the ______ known to officers at the time that they used force.
• The first dart-firing stun gun was developed in which year?
• How many backup officers should be present to handcuff the subject after the officer with the DFSG has gained compliance?
• Which custody procedure is appropriate for individuals subjected to dart-firing stun gun use, even if they are receiving medical care?
• What is the term for the predetermined amount of time a stun device will discharge automatically when activated?
• EMD stands for electro-muscular disruption. Which body system is primarily affected?
• What component connects the two darts to the TASER device?
• Stun guns operate at ______ currents.
• What is a primary safety consideration to minimize bystander risk when aiming a stun device?
• What should you do if the device is dropped during deployment?
• Which statement best describes the DFSG's role relative to firearms?
• One of the two most common types of stun guns is a basic model.
• What immediate effect does a dart-firing stun gun have on its target's system?
• How should you store a Dart Firing Stun Gun when not in use?
• What should you do if the device shows a fault indicator during inspection?
• A form of psychosis resulting from drug use is called?
• In cases of unexplained deaths involving in-custody subjects who have been tased, bizarre behavior is due to which mental states?
• In what situations is de-escalation preferred over device deployment?
• The charge will pass through heavy clothing and skin, but the charge is not intense enough to ________ the subject's body unless it is applied for extended periods.
• When articulating the decision to use a DFSG, the basis should include training, experience, and assessment of the circumstances.
• What is the purpose of a safety switch on a stun device?
• Which statement correctly describes arcing through materials in the context of DFSG use?
• Which principle guides the use of force to be proportional to the threat?
• If the officer misses or only one probe hits, what is the recommended next step?
• What does DFSG stand for?
• In which environments should you avoid using a Dart Firing Stun Gun?
• Which factor must be considered when judging whether officers' use of force was justifiable at the time it occurred?
• What does the acronym EMD stand for in this context?
• Which phrase best captures the objective described for handling suspects safely and practically?
• Which is a recommended post-incident reporting practice?
• Which statute states that a person may openly carry a dartfiring stun gun for purposes of lawful self-defense?
• What is the recommended distance to maintain from a subject when deploying a stun device?