Dart Firing Stun Gun Practice Test

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• _______ should remove all deeply embedded probes or probes that penetrate sensitive tissue areas (i.e., neck, face, groin, female breast, etc.).
• Which term describes a device that propels electrified darts, probes, or barbs?
• What condition could cause ignition when a dart-firing stun gun is deployed on a subject?
• What is the consequence of failing to report a stun device incident?
• The TASER device propels two small darts using what mechanism?
• When a dart-firing stun gun fires, the probes discharge into the subject. The officer then applies a drive stun away from the probes to achieve what?
• How does a stun device differ from pepper spray or baton in deployment considerations?
• What voltage range is typically produced by the boosted circuitry in stun devices?
• What is the recommended distance to maintain from a subject when deploying a stun device?
• What is the recommended response when a subject refuses commands and appears intoxicated or impaired?
• The most prudent approach may be for the officer to do what?
• TASER's name references an early 1900s children's novel by ______
• How should the 5-second cycles be applied?
• Probes removed from the skin should be treated as _______.
• Which medical conditions may require additional caution before using a stun gun? (Variant of safety considerations)
• When articulating the decision to use a DFSG, the basis should include training, experience, and assessment of the circumstances.
• Which component of a stun gun delivers the electrical pulse to the target?
• What type of information should be documented after an incident involving a stun device?
• Which acronym corresponds to 'Electronic Control Device'?
• Which items are included in comprehensive training for Dart Firing Stun Gun use?
• Which statement correctly describes the roles during DFSG deployment?
• Which factors influence the decision to deploy a stun device versus retreating?
• Why is verbal de-escalation before deploying a stun device important?
• What is the primary function of the probes when the stun gun is fired?
• How should you store a Dart Firing Stun Gun when not in use?
• Which factor must be considered when judging whether officers' use of force was justifiable at the time it occurred?
• The use of a DFSG in a punitive manner without lawful authority may be violating a citizen's _______
• Electricity tends to flow along which path?
• Which officer takes physical control after compliance is achieved?
• Which phrase best captures the objective described for handling suspects safely and practically?
• The dart firing stun gun is used to control a person during an arrest or custody when his or her resistance escalates from ______ physical resistance to ______ physical resistance
• What is the minimum backup presence during DFSG deployment?
• The subject has a hard time telling his or her muscles to move and may become _______, ______, and _______.
• Why is it important to avoid aiming at the head or neck region when possible?
• Under Florida Statutes, how is a dart firing stun gun categorized?
• Use of force incidents are judged on whether a reasonable person would believe the officers' actions were justifiable based on the ______ known to officers at the time that they used force.
• What is the role of medical staff in the aftermath of a stun device deployment?
• The portion of a subject's body that should be targeted for back shots and lower center mass is known as what?
• If the dart firing stun gun gets wet, what should you do?
• Who invented the stun gun?
• If only one probe strikes, which function can act as a second probe by completing the circuit?
• Why is it important to avoid dry-firing or discharging without a proper target?
• What is the recommended practice for re-holstering after an encounter?
• If the officer misses or only one probe hits, what is the recommended next step?
• What is gained when pain or involuntary neuromuscular contractions occur, enabling the officer to restrain the subject?
• The DFSG uses the same mechanism as which common device?
• Which statement best describes the proper re-holstering procedure after an encounter?
• What is the importance of maintaining a safe stance and control when securing a subject after deployment?
• What is the purpose of a safety switch on a stun device?
• Who will take physical control of the subject?
• How are the TASER discharge electrodes configured relative to the housing?
• What is the recommended approach when dealing with individuals with mental health conditions?
• What does ECD stand for?
• Which action is NOT recommended when a subject may be under the influence affecting coordination?
• Which statement is NOT accurate regarding civilian possession of a stun gun?
• What should you do if the device is dropped during deployment?
• Which combination describes the electrical charge delivered by the stun gun?
• If a subject is suspected to be under illicit substances affecting coordination, which steps should you take?
• Dart firing stun guns are a subtype of which broad category of devices?
• Which of the following is NOT listed among the mental states associated with bizarre behavior in tased individuals?
• Which statement best describes safety considerations regarding the line of fire?
• Before deploying a DFSG, what should the officer warn the subject about?
• Which of the following describes the typical immediate state of the subject during stun exposure?
• What is the importance of continuous training and re-certification?
• What is a primary safety consideration to minimize bystander risk when aiming a stun device?
• Excessive force claims are analyzed under which constitutional amendment?
• Which case is commonly cited as establishing TASER use law?
• What is released after firing the stun gun that helps investigators identify which gun was fired and at what location?
• In the context of equipment security, what is a primary reason to store stun devices away from unauthorized access?
• What does NMI stand for?
• In cases of unexplained deaths involving in-custody subjects who have been tased, bizarre behavior is due to which mental states?
• Claims that officers used excessive force in the course of an arrest, investigatory stop, or other seizure are analyzed under the ______ objective reasonableness standard.
• What does SDS stand for?
• Dart-firing stun weapons can propel darts up to how many feet?
• Which term describes a state of heightened agitation and delirium often seen with stimulant use?
• _______ sites might be the back near the shoulders or the back of the legs where, if clothed, the clothing fits tighter and the probes will conduct electricity to the subject more effectively
• The ideal area of the body for drive stun is what?
• An officer should first attempt to gain control of a situation by using ________
• Which principle guides the use of force to be proportional to the threat?
• Which statement best describes readiness for use of a stun device?
• What component connects the two darts to the TASER device?
• What is the primary purpose of a Dart Firing Stun Gun in law enforcement or security contexts?
• The subject's torso and limbs will contract or extend depending on what?
• The device affects which body system?
• What environmental or structural hazards could impede safe use of a stun device?
• What does EID stand for?
• The circuitry includes transformers that ______ the voltage and reduce amperage; the boosted voltage typically ranges from ______ volts.
• Name two risk factors that increase the likelihood of injury when a stun device is used.
• In the event of a deeply embedded probe, which personnel should perform the removal?
• Why is it important to maintain a log of all uses of a stun device?
• What should be checked during a pre-use inspection of a Dart Firing Stun Gun?
• Electricity will not pass to others in contact with the subject unless contact is made directly between or on the probes.
• Which statement best reflects responsible use of a stun device?
• The number of five-second cycles should be limited to which actions?
• What wattage range is described as a pain compliance tool that does not interfere with the nervous system?
• Which of the following indicates how the two darts are delivered from the main unit?
• Why is it important to know the device's effective range and limitations?
• The decision to use a DFSG requires what kind of reporting?
• The use of a dart-firing stun gun is not a substitute for the use of a _______
• What medical conditions may require additional caution before using a stun gun?
• Which of the following is NOT typically required for certification to carry or deploy a Dart Firing Stun Gun?
• What agencies or bodies may certify stun device training?
• Avoid ______ a subject's head, throat, face, breast, chest, or area of the heart, groin, genitals
• How should you handle cartridges when transporting or storing?
• Which statement best describes the DFSG's role relative to firearms?
• What information do identification tags convey?
• How should you assess a subject's physiological state after deployment?
• Electronic control devices are all generally built using the same principle, which is delivering relatively _______ (amperage and wattage) coupled with ______ to a subject
• The quickest and safest way to handle a non-compliant subject exhibiting excited delirium is to _____ and _____, if necessary.
• What distinguishes cartridge-based stun devices from direct-contact devices?
• What is the ethical obligation of officers or security personnel when using a stun device?
• The wider the probes spread on the target, the greater the effectiveness of the weapon.
• Which of the following best describes the lawful limit on the number of 5-second cycles?
• Which term describes the broad classification for unexplained in-custody deaths?
• What is the typical time window after custody for unexplained in-custody deaths to occur?
• Which document outlines the rules and standards for use of a stun gun in many jurisdictions?
• What is the recommended approach regarding de-escalation when using a stun device?
• Which is a recommended post-incident reporting practice?
• The electrodes are fitted with small _____ so that they will grab onto a subject's clothing.
• Which statement best describes the deployment roles?
• Which statement best describes the role of de-escalation in deciding to deploy a stun device?
• What should be done if a bystander is accidentally struck by a dart?
• In what situations is de-escalation preferred over device deployment?
• If a subject is near water at the time of a DFSG deployment, what is a possible risk?
• Which environmental factors should be considered before deploying a stun device to reduce slip hazards and ensure stability?
• What is the role of training in the safe use of a Dart Firing Stun Gun?
• What are the marks left on a subject's body after a drive stun application called?
• What should you do if the device shows a fault indicator during inspection?
• The reporting adjectives describing the DFSG use should be which pair?
• During engagement, what should be done to maintain electrical contact as the subject moves?
• Which statement about device safety and readiness is true?
• Which statement is true regarding injury risk with stun devices?
• Low voltage can injure if the ______ is high enough.
• Drive stun is intended to produce which effect on the subject when used appropriately?
• What immediate effect does a dart-firing stun gun have on its target's system?
• The TASER device is commonly shaped like a what?
• Subjects expecting enforcement encounters may conceal which items under clothing to reduce the device's effectiveness?
• What is the recommended approach to monitoring a subject after deployment for potential complications?
• Which groups are noted to have the greater standoff distance in DFSG design?
• Which condition increases the risk of injury when using a stun device?
• Which action is NOT a component of post-incident reporting?
• What is the term for the predetermined amount of time a stun device will discharge automatically when activated?
• What personal protective equipment (PPE) considerations may be relevant during deployment?
• If a subject continues to not comply, and when appropriate, warn of the device's ______.
• What is the minimum annual training requirement in hours for the use of a dart-firing stun gun?
• In TASER-style devices, which description matches the discharge electrodes?
• Which statement best describes PPE usage during deployment?
• The subject may not show physical effects from contact but may sustain injuries from _____ caused by the weapon’s effects on the body.
• Before deploying a stun device, what environmental factors should be assessed to minimize risk to bystanders?
• What is the primary purpose of documenting faults and maintenance actions for a stun device?
• Which statement correctly describes arcing through materials in the context of DFSG use?
• Which acronym stands for 'Dart Firing Stun Gun'?
• The device generally used as a crowd control device for public riots and in correctional settings is the
• What process helps prevent many physical encounters?
• What is the purpose of a device's safety features in everyday carry?
• Which Florida statute was a response to inconsistent stun gun use statewide?
• A stun device's current frequency is designed to do what relative to the body's signals?
• Conventional stun guns use which type of batteries?
• Which term describes the energy that is used in these devices to produce the electric shock?
• The reporting must include which element regarding the use of the DFSG?
• Which custody procedure is appropriate for individuals subjected to dart-firing stun gun use, even if they are receiving medical care?
• When a stun gun is pressed against a subject and the trigger is held, the charge passes into the subject's body.
• What are the two small darts connected by wire to the TASER commonly called?
• The brand name TASER is associated with what kind of device?
• What does the acronym EMD stand for in this context?
• Stun guns and dart-firing stun guns are available for purchase and legal use by which group in Florida?
• What is the usual discharge duration for a stun device when activated?
• What is the primary purpose of restraint devices in correctional settings?
• Which factor is NOT a consideration when deciding to deploy a stun device?
• Which acronym corresponds to 'Conducted Energy Device'?
• For a stun gun to operate, electricity must flow between the
• The stun gun was invented in the ______
• What legal considerations govern possession of a stun gun by civilians?
• Which principle applies to the use-of-force continuum relevant to stun devices?
• When applying force, which approach aligns with the use-of-force continuum?
• The dart-firing stun gun is not to be used to ______ a subject to give statements or perform an illegal act.
• The ______ of a subject's body should be below the neck area for back shots and the lower center mass for the front or large muscle groups such as the back
• What best distinguishes a non-lethal stun device from a firearm in terms of intent and lethality?
• The TASER device is shaped like a handgun and uses what to propel its two darts?
• Which action is required for the charge to pass into the subject's body?
• Electricity can arc through clothing and which type of materials?
• The charge can pass through what barrier?
• If the probe spread is very minimal due to a close shot or a drive stun with a live cartridge, what action away from the probes will increase the spread and cause incapacitation?
• Which of the following describes an 'Alternative target' site?
• What is a recommended practice to maintain safe distance when deploying a stun device?
• Is it appropriate to use a stun device on a moving vehicle occupant?
• Removed probes should be treated as ______.
• Which statement best describes the legal status of stun guns in Florida?
• What is the best approach for handling subjects suffering from psychosis to protect them and others from potential injury?
• The DFSG design enables greater standoff distance; which two user groups are specified for the longer distances?
• Stun guns operate at ______ currents.
• How should you manage equipment after training exercises to avoid contamination or misuse?
• If an officer decides to use a dart firing stun gun, he or she will be expected to articulate that, based on ______, _____, and _____
• What does DFSG stand for?
• Which statute states that it is not a violation to carry, for purposes of lawful self-defense in a concealed manner, a dart-firing stun gun?
• What is the overall goal of the stun gun with respect to the body's communication system?
• Who will operate the DFSG?
• In which environments should you avoid using a Dart Firing Stun Gun?
• In the described context, resistance escalates to active when the person has the apparent ability to threaten the officer or escape. Which scenario best describes this context?
• Which factor most directly determines whether a stun device injures a subject?
• According to Florida Statutes, you are allowed to decide to use a dart-firing stun gun only when a subject is actively physically resisting; you would not use it for verbal defiance, belligerence, punishment, or horse play.
• The court has established law on the use of a TASER in the case of _______
• What does CEW stand for?
• Exposing a subject who is standing in water to a dart-firing stun gun does not cause electrocution or increase the power applied to the subject.
• Which acronym stands for 'Conducted Energy Weapon'?
• What should you do if the device experiences a misfire or partial discharge?
• What does CED stand for?
• The path of least resistance on a dart-firing stun gun is
• If the subject begins to roll after deployment, which action should the officer take to maintain electrical contact?
• How long is a cycle?
• A form of psychosis resulting from drug use is called?
• Which statute states that a person may openly carry a dartfiring stun gun for purposes of lawful self-defense?
• Which statement best describes the factors to consider before deploying a stun device?
• What training is typically required to be certified to carry or deploy a Dart Firing Stun Gun?
• In as safe and practical a manner as possible, an officer should attempt to discern if a subject is ______.
• One of the two most common types of stun guns is a basic model.
• The stun gun is used to control a person during an arrest or custody when resistance escalates from which to which?
• The basic idea of a stun gun is to disrupt the body's communication system by generating a ___________,___________ electrical charge.
• Which of the following is a best practice for post-incident reporting after using a stun device?
• How many backup officers should be present to handcuff the subject after the officer with the DFSG has gained compliance?
• Drive stun occurs when the front of the dart-firing stun gun is directly touched to the body. What term describes this action?
• The reporting must include an explanation of what?
• _______ is the measure of electrical current or power.
• Drive stun is described as what type of tool?
• EMD stands for electro-muscular disruption. Which body system is primarily affected?
• The ______ are used to control and restrain, mostly in correctional settings.
• Which combination best describes the energy delivered by electronic control devices?
• The first dart-firing stun gun was developed in which year?
• This new weapon was called a TASER©, an acronym for _________
• What feature do the electrodes have to help them grab clothing?
• If all efforts to verbally de-escalate the situation are exhausted or are not feasible, the use of a dart-firing stun gun may be ______.
• The TASER device uses what to propel two small darts connected by wire to the device?
• Which acronym stands for a device that immobilizes via electric energy?
• What should be done if a drive stun is used with close range to ensure incapacitation is achieved?
• The charge will pass through heavy clothing and skin, but the charge is not intense enough to ________ the subject's body unless it is applied for extended periods.
• The electrical charge from a stun gun is typically unable to damage the body unless applied for what duration?
• Which document best reflects the regulatory basis for stun device use across jurisdictions?
• In this mode, the dart-firing stun gun works as a conventional stun gun and is a pain-compliance tool only.
• Which officer is designated to operate the DFSG during an encounter?
• Which device is about the size of a flashlight, runs on nine-volt batteries, and boosts voltage to 20,000-150,000 volts while reducing amperage?